It's well known that it was around the time of the neolithic(agricultural) revolution that male dominated societies/women's oppression started, but when reading about it I learned that agriculture cropped up (pun intended) in different parts of the world and not just the fertile crescent. So that got me thinking, did patriarchy just convergently evolve in all those societies? Because places like mesopotamia, China, and the Americas had little to no contact due to geography. Both major agricultural societies (FC and China) are androcentric, was patriarchy just bound to happen with the advent of agriculture? What do you guys think?